If Black plays 1. ... Rc8, then White simply moves his K back to b7.

It seems pretty straightforward. Am I missing something?

1. Kb6 f1=Q
2. Rxf1 Kxf1
3. Kxa5 f5
4. Kb6 f4
5. a5 f3
6. a6 f2
7. Kb7 Ke1
8. c8=Q Rxc8
9. Kxc8 f1=Q
10. a7 Qa6+
11. Kb8 Qb6+
12. Ka8

Kb6 is safer instead of Ka6 but you got all the moves right alena. Sorry Rakmaninov it still a draw you way

@Alena 1.Ka6 f1D+! Blacks wins

Here is the solution.

V-1

1.Ka6! Rc8
2.Kb7 Rg8
3.Ka6 Ra8+
4.Kb7 Rh8
5.Ka6 f5
6.Kxa5 f4
7.Ka6 f1=Q+
8.Rxf1 Kxf1
9.a5 f3
10.Kb7 f2
11.c8=Q Rxc8
12.Kxc8 Ke2
13.a6 f1=Q
14.a7
It's a draw

V-2

1.Ka6! Ra8+
2.Kb7 Re8
3.Ka6 f5
4.Kxa5 f4
5.Kb6 f1=Q
6.Rxf1 Kxf1
7.a5 f3
8.Kb7 f2
9.c8=Q Rxc8
10.Kxc8 Ke2
11.a6 f1=Q
12.a7
It's a draw

Thanks for the puzzle. It's instructive.